King Air C90 Theoretical Exam

What is the maximum certified altitude for the King Air C90B?

29,000 FT

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25,000 FT

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30,000 FT

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35,000 FT

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What is the maximum occupancy onboard, including crew?

9

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15

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8

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13

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What is the maximum landing weight for the C90B or GT?

11,500 lbs

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10,100 lbs

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9,600 lbs

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12,590 lbs

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You can use Aviation Gasoline but with some limitations, which one of the below is applicable?

Operation with crossfeed capability above 8,000 feet is prohibited

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Operation is limited to 200 hrs

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Operation above FL250 is prohibited

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Operation is limited to 100 hrs

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What is the max indicated airspeed for flaps Approach (C90B/GT)?

157 KIAS

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210 KIAS

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184 KIAS

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181 KIAS

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What is the VMO/MMO for the King Air C90B?

259 KIAS / 0.52 Mach

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282 KIAS / 0.65 Mach

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226 KIAS / 0.46 Mach

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260 KIAS / 0.56 Mach

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Airspeed for One-Engine-Inoperative Best Rate of Climb? (VYSE)

108 KIAS

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85 KIAS

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121 KIAS

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100 KIAS

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Which engine is installed in the King Air C90B?

Pratt & Whitney PT6A-52

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Pratt & Whitney PT6A-21 or PT6A-135A

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Pratt & Whitney PT6A-42

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Pratt & Whitney PT6A-62

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What is the maximum fuel imbalance for the King Air C90B?

79 USG

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267 LBS

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200 LBS

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350 LBS

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What is the minimum amount of fuel required for takeoff per side?

265 LBS

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150 LBS

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1000 LBS

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325 LBS

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What is the maximum ITT during engine start, PT6A-135A?

1000°C

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750°C

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1090°C

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850°C

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What is the minimum oil temperature for engine start?

0°C

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-10°C

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-50°C

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-40°C

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The engine is a free spooling turbine, what does that mean?

There is no physical linkage between the power turbine and the propeller shaft.

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There is no physical linkage between the compressor and the power turbine which is connected to the propeller shaft.

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There is a physical linkage between the compressor and the power turbine which is connected to the propeller shaft.

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The power turbine can rotate backwards for reverse

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A magnetic chip detector is installed, where is the detector located and how will a CAS be displayed?

Bottom of each reduction gearbox. As a yellow (amber) R Chip Detect (applicable side).

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top of each reduction gearbox. As a yellow (amber) R Chip Detect (applicable side).

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Bottom of each compressor turbine. As a red "R Chip Detect" (applicable side).

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Inside of the power turbine. As a yellow (amber) R Chip Detect (applicable side).

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When the auto-ignition is armed, when will the igniter activate?

If engine torque falls below 200 FT LBS

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If engine torque falls below 400 FT LBS

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If engine N1 falls below 52%

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If engine ITT falls below 350°C

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The fuel is sprayed into the combustion chamber, by how many fuel nozzles?

10

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14

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22

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12

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The power lever in the cockpit is linked to what?

The propeller pitch links

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The governor in the FCU

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The fuel flow valve

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The engine parameter computer

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What is correct regarding the fuel?

The fuel is pre-heated by the oil to fuel heater

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The fuel is never pre-heated

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The fuel is cooled by Ram air

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The fuel is pre-heated by circulating inside the engine oil tank.

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Upon engine shutdown, what happens with the fuel?

The FCU will close the fuel valve at the high pressure fuel pump

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The flow divider will cut the fuel supply. Any eventual residual fuel in the fuel nozzles will be burnt on the next engine start

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It will drain overboard from the combustion chamber, and the fuel nozzles by gravity.

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The purge tank pressure will emtpy the fuel nozzles, a dump valve will then drain any residual fuel overboard, if not combusted in the combustion chamber.

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In the event of an engine fire, what will be the indications(with fire detection and extinguishers installed)?

A master caution. Warning annunciator "Engine Fire" in red. If extinguisher is installed, the "ENG FIRE – PUSH TO EXT" will illuminate.

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An amber master caution"Engine Fire" will be illuminated.

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A bell will sound, a red fire warning will illuminate on the PFD.

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A bell will sound, a red CAS will be displayed on the EICAS "ENG FIRE"

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What is true regarding the fire detection system?

It senses infrared radiation, the system has photo conductive cells.

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It senses fire by detecting smoke in the engine compartment.

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It senses excessive temperatures of the engine compartment, and smoke detection in the cabin

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It senses smoke by using optic sensors

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How does the system protect the propeller from overspeed, if the primary governor fails?

The overspeed governor dumps oil from the propeller to keep the RPM below 1976 RPM (PT6A-135A).

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The primary governor dumps oil from the propeller to keep the RPM below 2000 RPM.

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The fuel topping governor dumps oil from the propeller to keep the RPM below 2120 RPM.

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By counter weights

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If the AUTO FEATHER is armed, at approximately what N1 will the system be armed?

53%

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100%

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90%

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85%

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During the engine start, when will you move the condition lever to add fuel?

When selecting the engine start switch to Start

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When the N1 is at 5% or more

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They should be in low position before engine start

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at 12% N1 or above

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What is the limitation of the starter?

40 sec ON, 60 sec OFF, 40 sec ON, 60 sec OFF, 40 sec ON then 30 minutes OFF

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60 sec ON, 40 sec OFF, 60 sec ON, 40 sec OFF, 60 sec ON then 30 minutes OFF

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40 sec ON, 60 sec OFF, 40 sec ON, 60 sec OFF, 40 sec ON , then 60 minutes OFF

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30 sec ON, 40 sec OFF, 30 sec ON, 40 sec OFF, 30 sec ON then 40 minutes OFF

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What is recommended minimum engine oil temperature prior to takeoff?

+55°C

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+5°C

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0°C

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+90°C

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When landing on a short runway, you would like to achieve full reverse thrust as quickly as possible, how would you do that?

By setting the conditioning levers to HIGH IDLE before moving the power levers to reverse.

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By lifting the power levers to reverse before touchdown

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By setting the conditioning levers to HIGH IDLE before moving the propeller levers to reverse.

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By setting the conditioning levers to LOW IDLE before moving the power levers to reverse.

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What will happen if the engine-driven fuel pump (high pressure) fails?

The boost pump will still supply pressure

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The primary low pressure pump is then supplying pressure

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The fuel is still suction fed to the engine, but will limit the operating altitude

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The engine will flame out

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On the fuel gauge, without moving any switch, what does the gauge shows?

The total amount of all fuel tanks

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The fuel in the main tank

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The fuel in the AUX tank

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One will show the fuel in the main tanks while the other will show the fuel in the AUX tanks

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If you want to fill all fuel tanks full, which tank must you begin to fill up?

The nacelle tank

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The wing tank

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It does not matter

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the wing tank first, then the nacelle tank, then top off the wing tank again

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What type of electrical system is installed?

28 VDC triple fed system

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24 VDC dual fed system with 28VAC

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24 VDC system

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32 AC triple fed system

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What is true regarding the hot battery bus?

It is powered when the battery switch is placed to ON or GND OPS

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It is powered when the battery switch is placed to ON

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It is powered when the standby battery switch is placed to ON

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It is always powered if the battery is connected.

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What is controlling the output of the generator?

The current limiter

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The Generator Control Unit, GCU

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The generator output solenoid

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The Voltage Regulator Unit, VRU

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What is the absolut minimum voltage of the battery to connect an external power?

22 Volts

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20 Volts

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no limitation

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23 Volts

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What is true regarding the usage of external power?

It can only be used for engine start

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The battery switch must be on before connecting the external power

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The battery must be placed to OFF before connecting the external power

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The ground power unit must be able to produce 500 amps continuously

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What is a true statement?

The battery may be damaged if exposed to voltages higher than 30 volts for extended periods of time

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If the battery voltage is low, the external power is always used to re-charge a depleted battery

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A maximum continuous load of 300 amp, or more will damage the external power relay.

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A ground power unit must be able to produce 1200 amp for engine start

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The yellow annunciator “EXT PWR” mean?

The external power source is faulty

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External DC power plug is connected to the aircraft

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The voltage from the ground power unit is not correct

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External power is available but not yet connected.

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What is a true statement?

The GCU provides voltage regulation of an output of 24,5 VDC.

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If the GCU senses a reverse current, it will open the line contactor and disengage the generator. The generator needs to be reset by the pilot in order to bring it back online.

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If the GCU senses an overvoltage, it will open the line contactor and disengage the generator. The generator needs to be reset by the pilot in order to bring it back online.

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Paralleling of generator output is provided by the current limiters

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What is the purpose of the Hot Battery bus?

Provides a path for generators to charge the battery

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Provides a different electrical path when using external power

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Provides power to essential systems

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Sheds excessive load from the battery

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What does a loadmeter indicate?

Available power from a generator

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Total amount of current drawn by airplane systems

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Amount of current drawn by a generator

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Generator load as a percentage of generator rating

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What is true regarding the pump in the center fuel tank?

It is submerged electrically driven pump

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Its a jet pump driven by motive flow from the engine driven fuel pump

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its a a submerged jet transfer pump driven by the motive flow from the wing tank fuel pump

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This tank does not have a tank, the transfer is done by gravity

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The boost pumps are operated by

Electrical power

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Motive flow

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High pressure fuel

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Ram pressure

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What is the maximum differential pressure for the pressurization?

5.1 psi

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6.6 psi

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7.0 psi

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5.9 psi

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Pneumatic bleed air is used to operate everything except

Engine inlet de-ice

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Yaw damping

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door seal, air-stair door

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Surface deicing

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The supplemental electric heating system will not operate when:

Windshield heat or prop-deice is operating

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The ELEC HEAT switch is set in GND MAX and the airplane becomes airborne

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The de-ice boots are operating

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The engine bleed air is warming the cabin

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The air conditioning compressor is located in the

Nose of the aircraft

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Right engine

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Lower mid-point of the fuselage

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Right wing

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Windshield defogging is controlled by

The DEFROST AIR knob

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The MAN HEAT switch

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The TEMP MODE SELECTOR switch

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The ELEC HEAT mode

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The “Cabin Alt High” warning annunciator illuminates respectively at

10,000 FEET

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13,500 FEET

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14,500 FEET

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12,500 FEET

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The maximum selectable rate at which cabin pressurization can change is

1000 ft per minute

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200 feet per minute

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2000 feet per minute

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10,000 feet per minute

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The oxygen systems must first be enabled by

A PULL ON – SYSTEM READY handle

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A diluter-demand flow valve

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Pulling the pin in each mask hose

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Setting all mask switches to 100%

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Oxygen flow in the passenger masks when

A barometric switch energizes

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A pressure-sensitive switch in the passenger line opens

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A lanyard valve pin is pulled

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The passenger masks are plugged in to the connection in the ceiling.

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Propeller deicing boots, with the switch set to ON

Heat all blades continuously

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Inflate all deice boots simultaneously

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Heat blades according to a set cycle

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Inflate all deice boots according to a set cycle

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Anti-icing for the leading edge engine inlet

Utilizes a deployable vane barrier

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Can release ice pellets into the engine compressor

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Utilizes pneumatic boots

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Utilizes hot exhaust gases

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Propeller deicing

Is pneumatically-powered

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Is electrically-powered

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Utilizes inflatable boots

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Can be confirmed by changes on the ammeter

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The engine inertial vane

Protects the engine compressor screen

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Protects the leading edge air intake

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Utilizes engine bleed air

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Is automatically extended when ambient temperatures are below -40°C

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Fuel heating

Uses oil-to-fuel heat exchange

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is selected when weight is off the landing gear

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Is selected when ambient temperatures are below -40°C

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Is powered electrically

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Wing deice boots should be used

At frequent time intervals, when icing is observed

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Only after about ½ inch of ice buildup on the wings

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In the automatic cycling mode

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No more than once per ten-minute period

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Hydraulic power for the landing gear comes from:

An engine-driven pump

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A hydraulic power pack

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Integral pumps at each actuator

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Electric motors at each actuator

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Landing gear:

Separate hydraulic lines are provided for all of the operating modes except:

Emergency extension

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Normal retraction

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Normal extension

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Manual retraction

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The hydraulic landing gear is:

Electrically controlled and electrically actuated

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Hydraulically controlled and electrically actuated

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Electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated

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Hydraulically controlled and hydraulically actuated

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The pilot can test the “HYD FLUID LO” caution annunciator circuitry by:

Pressing the Warning Light Panel press-to-test button

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Holding down the toe brakes while parked

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Pressing the HYD FLUID SENSOR TEST button

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There is no test function

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The landing gear warning horn will sound continuously when the gear is not down and locked and:

The red LDG GEAR CONTROL lights are extinguished

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The flaps are beyond the APPROACH position

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The LDG GEAR CONTROL handle is down

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The LANDING GEAR ALTERNATE EXTENSION handle is not in its securing clip

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The electric elevator trim system can be disengaged by

Pressing the AP/YD TRIM INTERRUPT button on the yoke. When released, trim will resume operation.

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Cycling either BLEED AIR VALVES switch to INSTR & ENVIR OFF

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Pressing the AP/TRIM MASTER switch to the first detent

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Sliding the YD/AP DISC switch down

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In the case of a mismatch between flap positions

Flaps movement will stop

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Electric elevator trim will be inoperative

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The flaps will return to the full up position

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A safety mechanism will disconnect power to the electric motor

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What is the maximum altitude with the yawdamper inop?

12,000 feet

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17,000 feet

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25,000 feet

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31,000 feet

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What is the minimum airspeed for sustained flight in icing conditions?

163 KIAS

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140 KIAS

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200 KIAS

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223 KIAS

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How is the cabin pressure maintained?

By regulating the outflow valve

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By regulating the bleed air valves

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By regulating the hydraulic lines

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By an outflow valve in the bleed air lines

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Before descent, what is the best practice for the cabin pressurization controller?

Close the rate of descent before setting the landing altitude

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Ensure the rate of descent is set to max

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Set the landing altitude always at the runway elevation

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Set the landing altitude 500 feet below the landing altitude

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Regarding pressurization, what is true?

Set the landing altitude +500 feet, adjusted for pressure setting

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Set always 500 feet above the landing altitude

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Set the landing altitude at 0

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Set the landing alttiude 1000 feet above airport reference point.

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What could happen if you try to start an engine (using battery) with too low voltage?

A hung start

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A hot start

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Battery runaway

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The battery will be destroyed

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